Let f:\mathbb{N} \to \{\pm 1\} be a function such that f(mn)=f(m)f(n) for all m,n \in \mathbb{N}. Prove that
there are infinitely many n such that f(n)=f(n+1).
Proposed by Oleksi Klurman, University College London, UK
Solution:
Let n \in \mathbb{N}. As f is completely multiplicative, then f(n^2)=(f(n))^2=1. If there are infinitely many n such that f(n^2-1)=1, we are done. So, assume that there are only finitely many n such that f(n^2-1)=1. Then, there are infinitely many n such that f(n^2-1)=-1. Since f(n^2-1)=f(n-1)f(n+1), then there are infinitely many pairs \{f(n-1),f(n+1)\}=\{-1,1\}. Since f(n)=\pm 1, it follows that there are infinitely many n such that f(n)=f(n+1).